Greetings,
This is my first thread starter.
The following threads would probably provide a useful background to this one:
www.ephilosopher.org/modules.php?op=modl...p;topic=106&1064
(Look at the bottom half of the page- thanks talking_dog)
www.ephilosopher.com/e107_plugins/forum/t.html&11
(This is the latest page, but all of them would be useful)
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So, what's this thread about?
Well, in a nutshell it's a question about existence and non-existence
NO WAIT! Don't swallow your tongue yet, it's not as bad as that.
We all use words to label things. This is what is referred to as the 'aboutness' of language i.e. because language is used to say stuff ABOUT things. Now, if I want to say something ABOUT a thing such as a 'dog', for example, then I can say that simply by using the word dog, I am accepting or implying that that a 'dog' is a thing and therefore, that it exists.
OK, so maybe this seems like another philosophical attempt to complicate what's quite obvious and simple- but guess what? *gasp* it's not as straightforward as all that (what a suprise).
At this point I should clarify what I mean by 'exist'. Now, most people would say that 'X exists' (e.g. a dog) if and only if there is a dog that PHYSICALLY exists in the world. However, this is quite tricky since we've got loads of ideas in our heads about things that don't really exist physically, such as Unicorns, ogres, philosophy being a highly paid career, to name but a few. Nevertheless, we don't say that they don't 'exist' since we can use words to refer to them; and if they don't exist then what exactly are these words referring to?
The problem that some people have with this view goes something like this:
If using a word to represent something is in some way suggestive that the said something exists, then what we are saying is that naming something is the same as ascribing the property of existence to that thing (implicitly).
So the question is this: If we can label a 'something' and ascribe to it the property of existence, then can we can we refer to 'something' and ascribe it the apparently opposite property of 'non-existence'?
It would seem to me that we cannot ascribe a property of any kind to that which does not exist. In fact, I would go even further and say that we cannot label that which does not exist- the reasons for which I will discuss in a bit. It also seems that by necessity, anything that exists has the property of existence. OK, that sounds like a tautology but here's why:
Only that which can be referred (i.e. a word for- technically, denoted) to can have a property; moreover, only that which can have a property can have the property of existence. So, as soon as we use a word to make a reference to something, say a dog, we are automatically required to accept that since words which refer ('denote') have properties, then the one property that it has to have is of existence.
Take for example,
1) "I love Mary".
I cannot say (in the non-verbal sense) that "I" refers to me, but I do not exist. Moreover and more importantly, I cannot say that "Mary" refers to a particular person 'Mary', but that she doesn't exist. Else why use the word Mary? Surely 'John', 'Gary', 'tractors', 'unicorns' would have done the job quite nicely. The key is that Mary is a Syntactic Object- more about this in a minute- which means that whatever she is (or it is), she in some way exists.
Why should this be? After all, I can easily say that "I love unicorns" or "I love aliens" without implying that the Object actually exists. This is why I made a distinction earlier between that which exists in the physical sense (e.g. "Fred is brave"- where Fred can be found in the world) and that which exists in a kind of mental sense (e.g. "Unicorns are clever- where unicorns can be found only in the mind).
Now, a little bit of common sense will tell us (I hope) that sentences such as "I love unicorns" do actually mean something.
Following on from what I said in the previous paragraph, it doesn't seem to make sense to say things such as, "I love unicorns, but unicorns don't exist" unless we're also going to say that sentences such as (1) can be paraphrased in a similar way e.g "I love Mary, but Mary doesn't exist". Now, we might quibble over whether Mary is a figment of my imagination, but we can't very well say that the Object Mary has no kind of existence whatsoever- for if this is the case then what are we referring to?
I think that this brings us close to the crux of the matter: In sentences such as (1) "I love Mary" we have to accept that the Object Mary exists, and thus has a property, and therefore necessarily has the property of 'existence'. This is part of the way our syntax works; and I'm not suggesting that syntax determines the way we can think about the world, but rather that the way we can think about the world is evident through our syntax.
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There is a further argument to help explain this theory but I think that this could get us all going.